Let \(\mathbb{Z}_n\) denote the integers modulo \(n\text{;}\) that is, \(\mathbb{Z}_n=\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}\text{.}\) An interval in \(\mathbb{Z}_n\) is a set of the form \(\{i,i+1,\dots,i+t\}\) for \(0\leq i,t\leq n-1\text{,}\) where addition is viewed modulo \(n\text{.}\)
Let \(f:[n]\to \mathbb{Z}_n\) be a random bijection. For any set \(A\subseteq [n]\) and an interval \(I\) in \(\mathbb{Z}_n\text{,}\) each of cardinality exactly \(k\text{,}\) the probability that \(f(A)=I\) is precisely
\begin{equation*}
\frac{k!(n-k)!}{n!} = \frac{1}{\binom{n}{k}}\text{.}
\end{equation*}
There are exactly \(n\) intervals of length \(k\) in \(\mathbb{Z}_n\text{.}\) Thus, by linearity of expectation, the expected number of sets \(A\in \mathcal{F}\) mapped to an interval under \(f\) is
\begin{equation*}
\sum_{A\in\mathcal{F}}\left(\sum_{I\text{ an interval in } \mathbb{Z}_n} \mathbb{P}(f(A)=I)\right) = \frac{|\mathcal{F}|\cdot n}{\binom{n}{k}}\text{.}
\end{equation*}
Next, let us prove that no bijection \(f:[n]\to\mathbb{Z}_n\) can map more than \(k\) sets of \(\mathcal{F}\) to intervals. Here is the reason. Suppose that \(A\in \mathcal{F}\) such that \(f(A)\) is the interval \(\{i,i+1,\dots,i+k-1\}\text{.}\) If \(B\) is another set of \(\mathcal{F}\text{,}\) then, since \(A\cap B\neq\emptyset\text{,}\) we have \(f(A)\cap f(B)\neq \emptyset\text{.}\) If \(f(B)\) is an interval, then \(f(B)\) must start at one of the points \(i+1,\dots,i+k-1\) or end at one of the points \(i,\dots,i+k-2\text{;}\) note that it cannot start at \(i\) or end at \(i+k-1\) because \(A\neq B\text{.}\) Moreover, since \(n\geq 2k\text{,}\) the interval \(f(B)\) cannot both start and end in \(f(A)\text{.}\) Therefore, each set \(B\in\mathcal{F}\) with \(B\neq A\) which is mapped to an interval “cuts” the set \(A\) into two intervals (the elements of \(B\cap A\) and \(A\setminus B\)). No two different sets \(B\in\mathcal{F}\) can cut \(A\) in the same way, as this would imply that those two sets are either the same or are disjoint (again, we are using \(n\geq 2k\)). Thus, there are at most \(k-1\) sets in \(\mathcal{F}\) apart from \(A\) which map to an interval; so, there is a total of at most \(k\) such sets overall.
Putting this all together,
\begin{equation*}
\frac{|\mathcal{F}|\cdot n}{\binom{n}{k}}\leq k
\end{equation*}
which implies that
\begin{equation*}
|\mathcal{F}|\leq \binom{n-1}{k-1}
\end{equation*}
and we are done.